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Frank asked this question about The Handmaid’s Tale (The Handmaid's Tale, #1):
Why do you think Ms. Atwood chose [Offred's] relationship with Luke to be one where he is initially married to someone else, and he is cheating on his wife with [Offred]? I understand the setup for their marriage to be considered "invalid" (since they don't believe in divorce), but why this initial affair? I assume it's some attempt to expose the irony of her role as Handmaid (where she is also with a married man)?
Karla I think that may be somewhat true. But I felt that it was more of an attempt to use Offred's past to force the reader to be more objective when viewin…mǰI think that may be somewhat true. But I felt that it was more of an attempt to use Offred's past to force the reader to be more objective when viewing the Gilead society. If Offred had been a paragon of virtue, married to her high school sweetheart, happy wife and mother with no vices, readers would be too focused on the indignities she faced to really read the novel. But she isn't perfect. She smokes, drinks, has an affair, disapproves of her Feminist mother. She's humanized. So instead of reading and thinking "no, this can't happen to poor Offred who has never done a thing to hurt anyone," we think "this is insane, no woman deserves this." She isn't the ultimate victim. And because of that we can see how the widespread the suffering is. Even Serena Joy, who basically brought her misery on herself, doesn't deserve what this fanatic society has done to her. (less)
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Frank Thanks for your answer (and apologies for the delay!). It's a perspective I never would have considered, and likely exposes my naivete, since honestly ...more
Jan 30, 2017 08:32AM · flag
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by Margaret Atwood (ŷ Author)
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